Revealing Eschatology.
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The Power and Glory of God's Creation.
An Apologetic on Preterism (and) Partial Preterism.
Part 2.
It has been noted that full and partial preterists reject the literal and normal interpretation of the prophecies. They insist that almost all of the Bibical prophecies should be interpreted allegorically, metaphorically, or symbolically. This allegorical method of interpretation rejects the clear literal meaning of the prophecies that point to the return of Christ in the last days. Preterists interpret the prophetic message recorded in Daniel, Revelation, and Christ's Olivet Discourse, among others, in an allegorical manner. And hold to their claim that all these prophecies were fulfilled with the fall of Jerusalem in 70 A.D.
However, by this allegorical method, it rejects the teaching of a literal return of Jesus Christ. While the Bible often uses symbolic lanquage and figures, the scriptures also contain interpretations of these prophetic symbols so we are not left in darkness to guess as to their correct meaning. Yet curiously, the preterists interpret the lanquage of the scriptures, about the life, death, and resurrection of Christ in a totally literal and natural manner, but they abandon this fundamental principle of bibical interpretation when they interpret the prophecies about the Lord's second coming in the last days.
In making their argument preterists turn to the Olivet Discourse to prove their claims, to which we shall turn to now in rebuttal. We begin first in Mark where he records at the end of the Discourse that Jesus said his words were given for "all" and not just the disciples. "And what I say unto you I say unto all, Watch." (Mark 13-37).
The Olivet Discourse is written in the same manner as the epistles. Its instruction (wording) assumes that the original audience would live to see the second coming of Christ. This makes the Bible applicable to every generation, regardless of how long Jesus takes to return. It is quite clear that Jesus intended his instructions about watching for the signs of his coming to be observed by Christians of this age. This is seen in Matt. 28-18-20, "Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world (age) Amen." (Greek; "tes sunteleias tou aionos"). The Greek word "end" here in this passage is "sunteleias", which signifies to bring "completely to an end"--to finish completely all prophecy and events. When the word "telos" (end) is given, it signifies the "limit" of which a person, thing or event ceases to be "up to that point in time." As for example Matt. 24-13.
In Matt. 24-1-3, something occurred between verses 2 and 3 that's not recorded here in Matthew, but is included in Luke chapter 21. In Luke 21, while still within the temple grounds, Jesus gave a lengthy discourse about the coming destruction of the temple which was later fulfilled in 70 A.D. This discourse focuses mostly on the destruction of Jerusalem (verses 12-24), it also briefly mentions the second coming of Christ. After Jesus gave this discourse, Jesus and the disciples made their way out of Jerusalem to the Mt. of Olives. No doubt thinking about the events of that day and Jesus' prophecy of the destruction of the temple and his second coming. This is seen "in the question" they posed to Jesus given here in Matthew, but given differently in Mark and Luke. In Mark 13-4 and Luke 21-7, the question is asked in this way; "---When shall these things be? And what (shall be) the sign when all these things shall be fulfilled?"(Mark 13-4). Luke 21-7, "---when shall these things be? And what sign (will there be) when these things shall come to pass?"
Returning to Matt. 24-3, "And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, tell us, when shall these things be? And what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the age?" (Greek; tes sunteleias tou aionos). Note here, the word "end" is "sunteleias," not "telos." These same words are used in Jesus' Great commission in Matt. 28-19-20, "---the end of the age." (tes sunteleias tou anoinos). We read in Matt. 24-22, "And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved; but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened." What does Jesus mean by "those days" that will be shortened, lest no flesh be saved? This indicates that certain events of "those days" of the "telos" (end) shall be shortened to bring in the "sunteleia" of the age, Jesus' second coming; lest no flesh be saved (would survive). And "no flesh" does not mean just Jewish humanity, but rather it means "all humankind."
Who are the "elect" that Jesus refers to? The New Testament uses this term more frequently than in the Old Testament, and in virtually every case it refers to Christians ( Jew and Gentile). In this context it is clear that it refers to disciples of Christ. It was the original disciples who assumed the role of Elders of the Church. They are the ones who Jesus commanded to take the message to the Gentiles and make disciples of them. (Matt. 28-19-20).
In Matt. 24-14, the word "world" is "oikoumene," and the word "earth" is "ge" in Matt. 24-30. Concerning the word "age"-"aion", it is used as a reference to "world" in certain contexts. For example, Mark 10-28-30, "Perevere for my sake and the gospels will recieve a reward---in the age (to aioni) to come, eternal life." Luke 18-30 uses the same Greek expression. This shows that "aion" (age) was being used in reference to a "world" to come, or new world age to come. That being the eternal age ( world) bringing in eternal life. And eternal life could not and was not given in an "age" that transpired in this world (age). That being as the preterists claim, the end of the age (the Old Covenant age/world) in 70 A.D. It would be given in the age/world to come in the "sunteleia." That being the consummation of the Christian age/world, that the Olivet Discourse speaks of. The "sunteliea" of the age then brings in the eternal age, bringing in eternal life. There is clear evidence in the New Testament that "aion" was often used to convey the sense of "world", the world as we know it.
This again is seen in Luke 20-34-36, "Jesus answered and said to them,"the sons of this age (tou aionos) marry and are given in marriage. But those who are counted worthy to attain "that age" (tou aionos ekeinou), and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry nor are given in marriage; nor can they die anymore, for they are equal to the angels and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection." Here's another case of "aion" being used to denote "world." Here it means the world/age that will follow this one, when the righteous will be resurrected to eternal life.
In Luke 21-35, when speaking concerning "that day" given in verse 34, "that day---will come on all those who dwell on the face of the "whole earth" (tes ges). Here the meaning is quite clear, it is the "entire earth," and not just a specific land area in the world. Two things to note here, it would come as a snare or trap on all the world, and it would come "unexpectedly." This was not so in the destruction of Jerusalem. The Roman armies did not come "unexpectedly" to the Jews. Nor was this a snare or trap on the whole world, but only for the Jews caught in that destruction in that part of the world. Looking to the parable in Matthew 13, we see here the "field" is the "world" (kosmos), the entire world. Matt. 4-8 and Luke 4-5 speak of Jesus' temptation by the devil when he showed Jesus "all the kingdoms of the world." The word "world" used here in Matt. 4-8 is "kosmos." But Luke 4-5 uses the word "oikoumene" to mean "the whole world."
In Luke 21-25, the word "earth" is "ges," and Matt. 5-18 the word "earth" is "ge." In each case to mean the whole earth. So it is in Matt. 24-30, the word "earth" is "ge". In Matt. 24-26, there he uses the Greek word "earth"-"oikoumene." The context indicates that "ge" and "oikoumene" was intended to convey in the strictest sense "the entire earth." It speaks of a "distress of nations that would be on the earth, and not only in "a part" of the earth. Luke uses "ges" (earth) in Luke 21-25 to speak of the distress of the nations of the earth, and in the next verse used "oikoumene" (earth) to speak of "the expectation of those things which are "coming on the earth." So we see the words were being used interchangeably in the same context. The context also speaks of "the sea and the waves roaring" in reference to "the distress of the nations on the earth. Chaos in the seas is a statement that depicts a worldwide upheaval and chaos that would accompany the return of Jesus.
Rev.3-10 is another passage among others in the New Testament that used both "earth" (ges) and world (oikoumene). Here Jesus states that an "hour of temptation" was coming upon the world (oikoumene) to try those who "dwell on the earth (ges). Using earth interchangeably with world indicate that both words were to be understood in that sense. We read in Rev. 12-9, "And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the devil, and Satan, which decieveth the "whole world," he was cast out into the earth (gen) and his angels were cast out with him." In verse 12, a woe "for the earth (gen) and the sea, because the devil has gone down to you." Here again, the word for earth is "gen", the entire earth. Using "earth" and "sea" together indicates that this speaks of the entire world which consists of the land and the sea. This is not speaking of a restricted area of earth/land, neither in Jerusalem or the Roman Empire as the preterist doctrines hold to. The context shows to any reasonable person that "oikoumene" in Luke 4-5; Acts 17-31; Hebrews 1-6; 2-5; Rev. 3-10; 12-9 and 16-14 signifies "the whole world."
In Matt. 24-30 we read; "---all the tribes of the earth" (Ge). The Greek word "ge" is to mean the entire world. When "ge" is used in the limited sense, it is used in a limited sense of land within a specified region given in the text. A few examples are; Matt. 11-24, "Land (ge) of Sodom"; John 3-22, "land (gen) of Judea." Hebrews 8-8-9, "land (ges) of Egypt"; Matt. 14-34, "land (gen) of Gennesaret"; Acts 13-17-19, "in the land (ge) of Egypt---in the land (ge) of Canaan." The contexts throughout the New Testament determined when "ge" was being used in the sense of the entire earth or a specific land area. Rev. 1-7 reads, "al the tribes of the earth "(ai phulai tes ges) will mourn because of him." Here the word "phulai" means "tribes" and "ges" means "earth," the entire world/earth.
Paul in Romans 16-26 said that the gospel had been made known "to all nations." But the word for "nations" used was neither "oikoumene" nor "kosmos." It was "ethne," which is the plural of "ethnos" (nation). Paul then was saying that the gospel had been preached (made known) to all "nationalities" that came from different nation groups and tongues in that area of the world. That began at Pentecost when the apostles spoke to the people in tongues (lanquages) to the various nation groups gathered there from different areas of the regions. Not that it had been preached "in all the world." He also gives this meaning in Col. 1-23 when he said that the gospel had been preached to "every creature under heaven," a figure of speech here used by Paul. No reasonable person would claim that the gospel had literally been preached in North and South America at that time, nor in other parts of the globe. This was a figure of speech used here by Paul to indicate that the gospel, at that time, had been made known "to all nations" (ethnic groups), and not the globe.
The preterist view is that "the end" prophecied in the Olivet Discourse was in the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. In their view this was "the end of the age" spoken about in the Discourse and the book of Revelation. But in Luke's reference to armies surrounding Jerusalem (Luke 21-20), Luke goes on to indicate that the destruction of the city was just "one" event in a "series" of others that would "precede" the final end (the sunteleia). "But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then know that its desolation is near. Then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains, let those who are in the midst of her depart, and let not those who are in the country enter her. For these are "the days of vengeance" (not the sunteleia), that all things which are written may be fulfilled." Jerusalem's fall, THEN all else that is prophecied and written may be fulfilled. "But woe to those who are pregnant and to those who are nursing babies in those days! For there will be great distress in the land and wrath upon this people. And they will fall by the edge of the sword, and be led away captive into all nations. And Jerusalem will be trampled by the Gentiles until the time of the Gentiles are fulfilled" ( Luke 21-20-24).
We see here that after the fall of Jerusalem, a time event called "the time of the Gentiles" would need to be fulfilled. This is clearly seen as an event that would continue after the destruction of Jerusalem and the Jews being led away captives into all nations. So the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. could not be the end of the age (the sunteleia), and the fulfillment of prophecy as the preterists claim. Also, Luke goes on to say that "after" the events described above occurs, then "the times of the Gentiles" would need to be fulfilled; "there shall be signs in the sun, moon, and stars, and upon the earth ( the inhabited earth) distress of nations, etc, etc." Luke 21-25-28 is not a description of an "abrupt end" that would come with the fall of the city, but of events that would go on long after Jerusalem's fall. The destruction of Jerusalem would be just one event in a chain of events that would continue until finally "the Son of man" would be seen coming in a cloud with power and great glory. The "sunteleia" or end of the age spoken of by Jesus in Matt. 24-3 and Matt. 28-20.
As we know, the Old Testament was written in Hebrew and Aramaic, but in the first half of the 3rd century B.C., work was begun on a Greek version that's called the Septuagint. This version can shed considerable light on what the translators of that time understood the Greek word "oikoumene" to mean. And the Holy Spirit must have considered it a reliable translation because he often "inspired" New Testament writers to quote it. Lets look at some Septuagint versions of Old Testament statements that referred to "the world." Keeping in mind at the time the work of the Septuagint began, Rome had---conquered all of the Italian peninsula, but no "Roman Empire" existed at that time. 2 Sam. 22-16,"---and the foundations of the world (oikoumenes) were discovered---." Did "oikoumenes" here refer to "a part" of the world or "Roman Empire" that didn't exist at that time? Psalm 9-8, "And he ( God) will judge the world (oikoumenon) in righteousness---." Does this mean that God would judge "only a part of the world or Roman Empire?" Psalm 18-15, "And the springs of water appeared, and the foundations of the world (oikoumenes) were exposed,---." Did the Septuagint translators think that the Lord had laid only the foundations of the Roman Empire? Psalm 24-1, "The earth is the Lord's and the fulness thereof; the world (oikoumene) and all that dwell in it." Did the SEptuagint translators think that only those who dwellt in the "yet to be Roman Empire" were the Lord's?
These are just a few, others, when the word "world" is translated to Greek by the Septuagint translators to be "oikoumene" are seen here. Psalm 33-8;77-18;89-11;90-2;93-1;96-10;96-13;97-4;98-7,9; Proverbs 8-26; Isa. 13-11;23-17; Jer. 10-12; 51-15. There are others given in the Old Testament to show that "oikoumene" was "frequently used" to convey the sense of the "entire world." As well as other passages quoted where "earth" and "world" are interchangeably used. Here apparently the preterists ( full or partial) reject all these many verses in the Old and New Testament and apply its meaning of "oikoumene" as being to only that "part of the world called the Roman Empire." One can only conclude that it is in order to hold to their doctrine of the prophecies being fulfilled, all or most in 70 A.D. Any doctrine that is "not of the word of the Lord" is a man-made doctrine, and not the gospel of the Lord. And Paul warned that it is to be rejected for it is cursed, as well as those who follow it knowingly.
The word "oikoumene" was used 15 times in the New Testament. The word sometimes means, in reading the context, the Roman Empire, but its also used to indicate the whole world or the "inhabited world." In Luke 2-1, the word "world" (oikoumene) is used, and it is, by context obvious that the "world" of the Roman Empire was meant, and not the entire world. In Luke 4-5, the context and word "world" is "oikoumene", whereas in Matt. 4-8 the word "kosmos" is used. Now if "kosmos" is to mean the entire world, then the context of "oikoumene" that Luke used was to indicate the same meaning, the entire world. Luke again uses the word "oikoumene" ( world) in Luke 21-25-26, but when looking to the context of verses 25-28, we see it to have a broader meaning; the entire world. The broader context is seen when Luke used "earth" (ges) in verse 25 to express "the distress of nations" on the "earth." (the entire earth). In verse 26, the next verse, he uses the word for "earth" (oikoumene) speaking of the expectation of those things which are coming on the earth, words here used interchangeably that it speaks of the entire world, and not a part of a world land area dominated by the Roman Empire at that time.
Going to Rev. 16-14 we read; "For they are spirits of the devil, working miracles which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to battle of that great day of God Almighty." Here we have "the kings of the "earth" and of the whole "world", now how could "oikoumene" here mean just "the Roman Empire?" How could "earth" be just a limited land area? The "whole world" however would have "many kings" in it rather than just a few. So which is the likely common sense meaning here, that kings within a limited area of land would go forth in that final apocalyptic battle, or that the kings of the whole world would come together for this battle?
Preterists maintain that the word "tribes" seen in Matt. 24-30 and Rev. 1-7 refer only to Israel-the tribes of Israel-, and not the tribes of the world. They see the word "tribes" as being a reference to "Israel's 12 tribes" and not the tribes of the world. The word "tribes" is seen in Matt. 19-28, where Jesus tells the disciples they would judge "the twelve tribes of Israel." The Greek word for "tribes" is "phule", the Septuagint also used "phule", but also in reference to "non-Hebriac tribes and nations." To give here a few examples; Gen. 12-3, "---and in thee shall all the tribes of the earth (phulai tes ges) be blessed." This is also seen in Gen. 28-14 when the promise was given to Jacob. "---in thee and thy seed shall all the tribes of the earth (phulai tes ges) be blessed." These tribes of the earth are seen in Ezek. 20-32, "--we will be as the nations, and "as the tribes of the earth" (phulai tes ges) to worship stocks and stones."
This again is seen in Luke 20-34-36, "Jesus answered and said to them,"the sons of this age (tou aionos) marry and are given in marriage. But those who are counted worthy to attain "that age" (tou aionos ekeinou), and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry nor are given in marriage; nor can they die anymore, for they are equal to the angels and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection." Here's another case of "aion" being used to denote "world." Here it means the world/age that will follow this one, when the righteous will be resurrected to eternal life.
In Luke 21-35, when speaking concerning "that day" given in verse 34, "that day---will come on all those who dwell on the face of the "whole earth" (tes ges). Here the meaning is quite clear, it is the "entire earth," and not just a specific land area in the world. Two things to note here, it would come as a snare or trap on all the world, and it would come "unexpectedly." This was not so in the destruction of Jerusalem. The Roman armies did not come "unexpectedly" to the Jews. Nor was this a snare or trap on the whole world, but only for the Jews caught in that destruction in that part of the world. Looking to the parable in Matthew 13, we see here the "field" is the "world" (kosmos), the entire world. Matt. 4-8 and Luke 4-5 speak of Jesus' temptation by the devil when he showed Jesus "all the kingdoms of the world." The word "world" used here in Matt. 4-8 is "kosmos." But Luke 4-5 uses the word "oikoumene" to mean "the whole world."
In Luke 21-25, the word "earth" is "ges," and Matt. 5-18 the word "earth" is "ge." In each case to mean the whole earth. So it is in Matt. 24-30, the word "earth" is "ge". In Matt. 24-26, there he uses the Greek word "earth"-"oikoumene." The context indicates that "ge" and "oikoumene" was intended to convey in the strictest sense "the entire earth." It speaks of a "distress of nations that would be on the earth, and not only in "a part" of the earth. Luke uses "ges" (earth) in Luke 21-25 to speak of the distress of the nations of the earth, and in the next verse used "oikoumene" (earth) to speak of "the expectation of those things which are "coming on the earth." So we see the words were being used interchangeably in the same context. The context also speaks of "the sea and the waves roaring" in reference to "the distress of the nations on the earth. Chaos in the seas is a statement that depicts a worldwide upheaval and chaos that would accompany the return of Jesus.
Rev.3-10 is another passage among others in the New Testament that used both "earth" (ges) and world (oikoumene). Here Jesus states that an "hour of temptation" was coming upon the world (oikoumene) to try those who "dwell on the earth (ges). Using earth interchangeably with world indicate that both words were to be understood in that sense. We read in Rev. 12-9, "And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the devil, and Satan, which decieveth the "whole world," he was cast out into the earth (gen) and his angels were cast out with him." In verse 12, a woe "for the earth (gen) and the sea, because the devil has gone down to you." Here again, the word for earth is "gen", the entire earth. Using "earth" and "sea" together indicates that this speaks of the entire world which consists of the land and the sea. This is not speaking of a restricted area of earth/land, neither in Jerusalem or the Roman Empire as the preterist doctrines hold to. The context shows to any reasonable person that "oikoumene" in Luke 4-5; Acts 17-31; Hebrews 1-6; 2-5; Rev. 3-10; 12-9 and 16-14 signifies "the whole world."
In Matt. 24-30 we read; "---all the tribes of the earth" (Ge). The Greek word "ge" is to mean the entire world. When "ge" is used in the limited sense, it is used in a limited sense of land within a specified region given in the text. A few examples are; Matt. 11-24, "Land (ge) of Sodom"; John 3-22, "land (gen) of Judea." Hebrews 8-8-9, "land (ges) of Egypt"; Matt. 14-34, "land (gen) of Gennesaret"; Acts 13-17-19, "in the land (ge) of Egypt---in the land (ge) of Canaan." The contexts throughout the New Testament determined when "ge" was being used in the sense of the entire earth or a specific land area. Rev. 1-7 reads, "al the tribes of the earth "(ai phulai tes ges) will mourn because of him." Here the word "phulai" means "tribes" and "ges" means "earth," the entire world/earth.
Paul in Romans 16-26 said that the gospel had been made known "to all nations." But the word for "nations" used was neither "oikoumene" nor "kosmos." It was "ethne," which is the plural of "ethnos" (nation). Paul then was saying that the gospel had been preached (made known) to all "nationalities" that came from different nation groups and tongues in that area of the world. That began at Pentecost when the apostles spoke to the people in tongues (lanquages) to the various nation groups gathered there from different areas of the regions. Not that it had been preached "in all the world." He also gives this meaning in Col. 1-23 when he said that the gospel had been preached to "every creature under heaven," a figure of speech here used by Paul. No reasonable person would claim that the gospel had literally been preached in North and South America at that time, nor in other parts of the globe. This was a figure of speech used here by Paul to indicate that the gospel, at that time, had been made known "to all nations" (ethnic groups), and not the globe.
The preterist view is that "the end" prophecied in the Olivet Discourse was in the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. In their view this was "the end of the age" spoken about in the Discourse and the book of Revelation. But in Luke's reference to armies surrounding Jerusalem (Luke 21-20), Luke goes on to indicate that the destruction of the city was just "one" event in a "series" of others that would "precede" the final end (the sunteleia). "But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then know that its desolation is near. Then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains, let those who are in the midst of her depart, and let not those who are in the country enter her. For these are "the days of vengeance" (not the sunteleia), that all things which are written may be fulfilled." Jerusalem's fall, THEN all else that is prophecied and written may be fulfilled. "But woe to those who are pregnant and to those who are nursing babies in those days! For there will be great distress in the land and wrath upon this people. And they will fall by the edge of the sword, and be led away captive into all nations. And Jerusalem will be trampled by the Gentiles until the time of the Gentiles are fulfilled" ( Luke 21-20-24).
We see here that after the fall of Jerusalem, a time event called "the time of the Gentiles" would need to be fulfilled. This is clearly seen as an event that would continue after the destruction of Jerusalem and the Jews being led away captives into all nations. So the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. could not be the end of the age (the sunteleia), and the fulfillment of prophecy as the preterists claim. Also, Luke goes on to say that "after" the events described above occurs, then "the times of the Gentiles" would need to be fulfilled; "there shall be signs in the sun, moon, and stars, and upon the earth ( the inhabited earth) distress of nations, etc, etc." Luke 21-25-28 is not a description of an "abrupt end" that would come with the fall of the city, but of events that would go on long after Jerusalem's fall. The destruction of Jerusalem would be just one event in a chain of events that would continue until finally "the Son of man" would be seen coming in a cloud with power and great glory. The "sunteleia" or end of the age spoken of by Jesus in Matt. 24-3 and Matt. 28-20.
As we know, the Old Testament was written in Hebrew and Aramaic, but in the first half of the 3rd century B.C., work was begun on a Greek version that's called the Septuagint. This version can shed considerable light on what the translators of that time understood the Greek word "oikoumene" to mean. And the Holy Spirit must have considered it a reliable translation because he often "inspired" New Testament writers to quote it. Lets look at some Septuagint versions of Old Testament statements that referred to "the world." Keeping in mind at the time the work of the Septuagint began, Rome had---conquered all of the Italian peninsula, but no "Roman Empire" existed at that time. 2 Sam. 22-16,"---and the foundations of the world (oikoumenes) were discovered---." Did "oikoumenes" here refer to "a part" of the world or "Roman Empire" that didn't exist at that time? Psalm 9-8, "And he ( God) will judge the world (oikoumenon) in righteousness---." Does this mean that God would judge "only a part of the world or Roman Empire?" Psalm 18-15, "And the springs of water appeared, and the foundations of the world (oikoumenes) were exposed,---." Did the Septuagint translators think that the Lord had laid only the foundations of the Roman Empire? Psalm 24-1, "The earth is the Lord's and the fulness thereof; the world (oikoumene) and all that dwell in it." Did the SEptuagint translators think that only those who dwellt in the "yet to be Roman Empire" were the Lord's?
These are just a few, others, when the word "world" is translated to Greek by the Septuagint translators to be "oikoumene" are seen here. Psalm 33-8;77-18;89-11;90-2;93-1;96-10;96-13;97-4;98-7,9; Proverbs 8-26; Isa. 13-11;23-17; Jer. 10-12; 51-15. There are others given in the Old Testament to show that "oikoumene" was "frequently used" to convey the sense of the "entire world." As well as other passages quoted where "earth" and "world" are interchangeably used. Here apparently the preterists ( full or partial) reject all these many verses in the Old and New Testament and apply its meaning of "oikoumene" as being to only that "part of the world called the Roman Empire." One can only conclude that it is in order to hold to their doctrine of the prophecies being fulfilled, all or most in 70 A.D. Any doctrine that is "not of the word of the Lord" is a man-made doctrine, and not the gospel of the Lord. And Paul warned that it is to be rejected for it is cursed, as well as those who follow it knowingly.
The word "oikoumene" was used 15 times in the New Testament. The word sometimes means, in reading the context, the Roman Empire, but its also used to indicate the whole world or the "inhabited world." In Luke 2-1, the word "world" (oikoumene) is used, and it is, by context obvious that the "world" of the Roman Empire was meant, and not the entire world. In Luke 4-5, the context and word "world" is "oikoumene", whereas in Matt. 4-8 the word "kosmos" is used. Now if "kosmos" is to mean the entire world, then the context of "oikoumene" that Luke used was to indicate the same meaning, the entire world. Luke again uses the word "oikoumene" ( world) in Luke 21-25-26, but when looking to the context of verses 25-28, we see it to have a broader meaning; the entire world. The broader context is seen when Luke used "earth" (ges) in verse 25 to express "the distress of nations" on the "earth." (the entire earth). In verse 26, the next verse, he uses the word for "earth" (oikoumene) speaking of the expectation of those things which are coming on the earth, words here used interchangeably that it speaks of the entire world, and not a part of a world land area dominated by the Roman Empire at that time.
Going to Rev. 16-14 we read; "For they are spirits of the devil, working miracles which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to battle of that great day of God Almighty." Here we have "the kings of the "earth" and of the whole "world", now how could "oikoumene" here mean just "the Roman Empire?" How could "earth" be just a limited land area? The "whole world" however would have "many kings" in it rather than just a few. So which is the likely common sense meaning here, that kings within a limited area of land would go forth in that final apocalyptic battle, or that the kings of the whole world would come together for this battle?
Preterists maintain that the word "tribes" seen in Matt. 24-30 and Rev. 1-7 refer only to Israel-the tribes of Israel-, and not the tribes of the world. They see the word "tribes" as being a reference to "Israel's 12 tribes" and not the tribes of the world. The word "tribes" is seen in Matt. 19-28, where Jesus tells the disciples they would judge "the twelve tribes of Israel." The Greek word for "tribes" is "phule", the Septuagint also used "phule", but also in reference to "non-Hebriac tribes and nations." To give here a few examples; Gen. 12-3, "---and in thee shall all the tribes of the earth (phulai tes ges) be blessed." This is also seen in Gen. 28-14 when the promise was given to Jacob. "---in thee and thy seed shall all the tribes of the earth (phulai tes ges) be blessed." These tribes of the earth are seen in Ezek. 20-32, "--we will be as the nations, and "as the tribes of the earth" (phulai tes ges) to worship stocks and stones."
Going to Amos 3-2 we read, "You (house of Israel) especially have I known out of all the "families of the earth" (phulon tes ges)---." If God had "especially" known the house of Israel out of all the families (phulon) of the earth, then these (phulon) tribes of the earth would have included all non-Hebraic tribes wouldn't they? If not, why not? We see these families of the earth again in Zech. 14-16-17. "And it shall come to pass that whosoever of all the families of the earth (tou phulon tes ges) shall not go to Jerusalem to worship the king, the Lord Almighty---." In verse 18 we read, "And if the family of Egypt (de phule Aiquptou) shall not go up,---." We see here when the bibical text restricts "phule" with a "qualifier" like "of Egypt," this means that only this "one tribe" is meant. But when texts refer to "all the tribes of the earth," it means all the tribes of the earth, the "grafted in" as well, and not just the 12 Jewish tribes of Israel. It speaks of "all Israel," the Israel of God, "the house of Israel", which is the body of Christ.
So we can know that the tribes in Matt. 19-18 referred only to the 12 tribes of Israel, because the text says so, but there is no such "qualifier" in Matt. 24-30 and Rev. 1-7. Just as there is no qualifier of the word "ges" (earth) with "of Judea" or "of Jerusalem" to show that Jesus meant for "ges" (earth) to refer only to the region around Jerusalem. If "ai phulai tes ges" (all the tribes of the earth) mean "all the tribes of the land of Judea" as preterists claim, then they must point us to "linquistic reasons" in the context of the statement to support their claims. The truth is they have no contextual reasons to support their claims, or they would have given them by now. They take that position only because of their long-held traditional belief.
Lets turn now to Rev. 1-7, "Behold, he is coming with clouds, and every eye will see him, even they who pierced him. And "all the tribes of the earth" (ai phulai tes ges) will mourn because of him." Now here, does this mean "all the tribes of the earth?" Why? Because it says so. If not, why not? How about Rev. 5-9, "---redeemed us to God by your blood out of "every tribe" (phules) and tongue and people and nation---." How about Rev. 13-7, "---and authority was given him (the beast kingdom) over "every tribe" (phulen), tongue and nation. All who dwell on the earth will worship him---." How about Rev. 14-6, the flying angel "having the everlasting gospel to preach to those who dwell on the earth---to every nation, "tribe" (phulen), tongue and people---." Now do these texts given here speak of "all the tribes of the earth?" Yes? Why? Because it says so. How about Rev. 7-4-8 where we see the sealing taking place "of all the tribes of the children of Israel." Are these "the tribes of the earth?" No. Why? Because it says so!
We read in Matt. 24-6, "You will hear of wars and rumors of wars,---but the end is not yet." In Mark 13-8 and Luke 21-11, Jesus said when these things would happen the end was "not yet." Rather, all these things are "the beginning of sorrows." So the signs of wars and rumors of wars, nations rising against nations, kingdoms against kingdoms, famines, pestilences, earthquakes etc. that preterists say was fulfilled by 70 A.D. with the fall of Jerusalem being that end or "end of the age" spoken of in the Discourse cannot possibly be. For according to Jesus, the end (the sunteleia) that Jesus is speaking of here, at this point in time of the prophecy, it marks "the beginning of sorrows" and not "the end" (sunteleia) as the preterists claim occurred by 70 A.D.
If as preterists claim, the prophecies of the Olivet Discourse, the book of Revelation, and other scriptures was fulfilled in 70 A.D. with Jesus' return even spiritually as they claim, then the prophecies concerning the resurrection and the new age of eternal life, the complete "sunteleia" would also have to be fulfilled at that time. Because 1 Thess. 4-13-18 clearly teaches that the resurrection would accompany the return of Jesus, and also fulfill the promise (the rapture) to the living saints. It is certainly clear that these things did not happen in 70 A.D. as preterists claim. The inspired word of God speaks "contrary" to the preterist claim. Luke 21-22 states that these "are the days of vengeance (not salvation and fulfillment of prophecy), "in order that all things which are written may be fulfilled." We can see this verse "all things--may be fulfilled" in light of the verse which speaks of Jerusalem being trodden down by the Gentiles "until the fulness of the Gentiles be fulfilled." Which history shows would be long after 70 A.D. to our very time. To the time where "This generation will not pass away until all these things take place" (Luke 21-32). This can be seen in Romans 11-25, "---blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in."
In order to recieve a better understanding of what has been discussed thus far, we'll continue with a review of the Olivet Discourse we've been following. We first turn to Matt. 24-3 where the disciples asked Jesus; "Tell us, when shall these things be? And what (shall be) the sign of thy coming, and of the end (sunteleia) of the age (aionos)?" As noted, the word "end" here is "sunteleia" which signifies to finish or end "completely" that prophetic text given.
In Mark 13-5-7, Luke 21-8-9 and here in Matt. 24-4-6, these events are given us. "Take heed that no man decieves you. For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall decieve many. And ye shall hear of wars and rumors of wars; see that ye be not troubled; for all (prophecy in scripture) must come to pass, but the end (the sunteleia) is not yet." In Luke 21-9 it is stated; "---for these things (given to this point in the Discourse) must first come to pass---." These prophetic words Jesus speaks of, at this point in the Discourse, "the end is not yet," was given in answer to their question in Matt. 24-3 concerning the "end" (the sunteleia of the age/world). As is seen in Mark 13-8, Luke 21-10-11 and here in Matt. 24-7-8, Jesus goes on to say; "For nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom; and there shall be famines and pestilences, and earthquakes in divers (various) places. All these (things to take place are) the beginning of sorrows."
After giving these general signs to the disciples concerning these coming things, he begins to tell his disciples the things that would soon happen to them in their lifetime. This is made clear in Luke 21-12, "But before all these (things)---." These events are given in Mark 13-9-13, Luke 21-12-19 and here in Matt. 24-9-13. Since Mark 13-9-11 give us more details, we go to that text. "But take heed to yourselves; for they shall deliver you up to councils; and in the synagogues ye shall be beaten; and ye shall be brought before rulers and kings for my sake, for a testimony against them. And the gospel must first be published (proclaimed) among all nations." We know from scripture that this began at Pentecost. "---men out of "every nation" under heaven (v. 5-Acts 2-1-13). This "proclamation" is seen in Mark 13-11, the following verse; "But when they shall lead (arrest) you, and deliver you up, take no thought before hand what ye shall speak, neither do ye premeditate; but whatsoever shall be given you in that hour, that speak ye; for it is not ye that speak, but "the Holy Ghost." We read in verse 13, "And ye shall be hated of all (men) for my name's sake; but he that shall endure (persevere to the end) the same shall be saved."
Here its necessary to go to Luke 21-20-24 in order to get a clearer understanding of the context seen in Matthew 24, Mark 13 and Luke 21. For Luke 21-20-24 give us the prophetic/historical fulfillment concerning the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. and its aftermath by the Roman Empire. "And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh." We see here, this refers not to the final end, the "sunteleia" time, but to Jerusalem's fall, its desolation. Here in Luke he does not state that it is "the abomination that causes desolation" for "Jerusalem", but rather it is the Roman armies that shall cause the desolation of Jerusalem. The abomination that causes desolation spoken of and seen in Mark and Matthew are not speaking of the Roman armies that Luke records, but rather the abomination seen in Daniel that we are told to refer to by Jesus in those verses of Mark and Matthew. And it is this abomination we are warned about that would come in the end time, and cause the desolation of the "world." Continuing with the prophecy given here in Luke of Jerusalem's fall; "Then let them which are in Judea flee to the mountains; and let them which are in the midst of it depart out; and let not them that are in the countries enter thereinto. For these be the days of "vengeance" (judgement-not fulfillment of all prophecy), that all things which are written may (in coming times) be fulfilled." This verse is clear, these are the days of "vengeance" in order that all things written may be fulfilled. "All things," all prophecy given in the Old and new Testament by the prophets and the apostles. "But woe unto them (in those days of vengeance) that are with child, and to them that give suck, in those days. For there shall be great distress in the land and wrath upon this people. And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations; and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the time of the Gentiles be fulfilled."
Luke 21-24 tells us that the Jews would be led away into all nations from the time of Jerusalem's fall, and Jerusalem would be trampled down "until the time of the Gentiles be fulfilled." And we know that time came about since 70 A.D. until at least when Israel was made a nation again in 1948. Luke 21-25-28 goes on to say that until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled; "There shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring; Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth; for the powers of heaven shall be shaken. And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory. And when these things (global and heavenly) begin to come to pass, then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption (not judgement) draweth nigh" (near).
Continuing in Luke 21-31-36, "So likewise ye, when ye see these things come to pass, know ye that the kingdom of God (the literal heavenly kingdom of God) is nigh (near) at hand." When these things come to pass, how near at hand shall the kingdom of God be? "Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass away, till all be fulfilled." Not the generation of the 1st century, but the generation that shall exist when the "times of the Gentiles be fulfilled," and as the general signs given occur in greater frequency. And note, it is at this time in the prophecy text that Jesus says "Heaven and earth "shall" pass away ( at the sunteleia of the age); but my words shall not pass away." Yet the preterists proclaim otherwise. They say that "heaven and earth" spiritually passed away in 70 A.D.; that being the Old Covenant age/world. But be it spiritual as they claim, Jesus states otherwise as does Revelation chapter 22. That heaven and earth shall pass away, not in 70 A.D. but when the general signs occur and after "the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled," bringing in the "sunteleia" of the age, and not before.
It is in those times of "that generation" that see these things being fulfilled that Luke 21-34-36 speaks to. "And take heed to yourselves, lest at any time your hearts be overcharged (weighed down) with surfeiting ( carousing), and drunkenness, and cares of this life, and (so) that day come upon you unawares. For as a snare (trap) shall it come on all them that dwell on the face of the whole earth" (tes ges). This verse is clear, it speaks of these things coming on the entire earth, and not just a specific land area of the Roman Empire. "Watch ye therefore, and pray always, that ye may be accounted worthy to escape all these things that shall come to pass, and to stand before the Son of man."
Now that we have gone through Luke 21-20-36, we turn to Mark 13-14-37 and Matt. 24-14-35, from where we had left off, and now continue from there. Since the wording in Matthew and Mark are much the same, we'll follow the text of Matthew. We ended in Mark 13-13 and Matt. 24-13, where it stated, "he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved." This is a parallel to Luke 21-17-19 and verse 24, "until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled." This time can be seen in Matt. 24-14; "and this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world (oikoumene-the inhabited world) for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come." Note the difference in wording here when compared to Mark 13-10, where there it indicated the coming of the Holy Spirit at Pentecost. There the "gospel" is mentioned, but the words "of the kingdom" are omitted. For the "gospel" must first be proclaimed among (not "into" but among) all nations. Acts chapter 2 tells us that this "gospel to be (first) published among the nations was fulfilled at Pentecost."
So we can know that the tribes in Matt. 19-18 referred only to the 12 tribes of Israel, because the text says so, but there is no such "qualifier" in Matt. 24-30 and Rev. 1-7. Just as there is no qualifier of the word "ges" (earth) with "of Judea" or "of Jerusalem" to show that Jesus meant for "ges" (earth) to refer only to the region around Jerusalem. If "ai phulai tes ges" (all the tribes of the earth) mean "all the tribes of the land of Judea" as preterists claim, then they must point us to "linquistic reasons" in the context of the statement to support their claims. The truth is they have no contextual reasons to support their claims, or they would have given them by now. They take that position only because of their long-held traditional belief.
Lets turn now to Rev. 1-7, "Behold, he is coming with clouds, and every eye will see him, even they who pierced him. And "all the tribes of the earth" (ai phulai tes ges) will mourn because of him." Now here, does this mean "all the tribes of the earth?" Why? Because it says so. If not, why not? How about Rev. 5-9, "---redeemed us to God by your blood out of "every tribe" (phules) and tongue and people and nation---." How about Rev. 13-7, "---and authority was given him (the beast kingdom) over "every tribe" (phulen), tongue and nation. All who dwell on the earth will worship him---." How about Rev. 14-6, the flying angel "having the everlasting gospel to preach to those who dwell on the earth---to every nation, "tribe" (phulen), tongue and people---." Now do these texts given here speak of "all the tribes of the earth?" Yes? Why? Because it says so. How about Rev. 7-4-8 where we see the sealing taking place "of all the tribes of the children of Israel." Are these "the tribes of the earth?" No. Why? Because it says so!
We read in Matt. 24-6, "You will hear of wars and rumors of wars,---but the end is not yet." In Mark 13-8 and Luke 21-11, Jesus said when these things would happen the end was "not yet." Rather, all these things are "the beginning of sorrows." So the signs of wars and rumors of wars, nations rising against nations, kingdoms against kingdoms, famines, pestilences, earthquakes etc. that preterists say was fulfilled by 70 A.D. with the fall of Jerusalem being that end or "end of the age" spoken of in the Discourse cannot possibly be. For according to Jesus, the end (the sunteleia) that Jesus is speaking of here, at this point in time of the prophecy, it marks "the beginning of sorrows" and not "the end" (sunteleia) as the preterists claim occurred by 70 A.D.
If as preterists claim, the prophecies of the Olivet Discourse, the book of Revelation, and other scriptures was fulfilled in 70 A.D. with Jesus' return even spiritually as they claim, then the prophecies concerning the resurrection and the new age of eternal life, the complete "sunteleia" would also have to be fulfilled at that time. Because 1 Thess. 4-13-18 clearly teaches that the resurrection would accompany the return of Jesus, and also fulfill the promise (the rapture) to the living saints. It is certainly clear that these things did not happen in 70 A.D. as preterists claim. The inspired word of God speaks "contrary" to the preterist claim. Luke 21-22 states that these "are the days of vengeance (not salvation and fulfillment of prophecy), "in order that all things which are written may be fulfilled." We can see this verse "all things--may be fulfilled" in light of the verse which speaks of Jerusalem being trodden down by the Gentiles "until the fulness of the Gentiles be fulfilled." Which history shows would be long after 70 A.D. to our very time. To the time where "This generation will not pass away until all these things take place" (Luke 21-32). This can be seen in Romans 11-25, "---blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in."
In order to recieve a better understanding of what has been discussed thus far, we'll continue with a review of the Olivet Discourse we've been following. We first turn to Matt. 24-3 where the disciples asked Jesus; "Tell us, when shall these things be? And what (shall be) the sign of thy coming, and of the end (sunteleia) of the age (aionos)?" As noted, the word "end" here is "sunteleia" which signifies to finish or end "completely" that prophetic text given.
In Mark 13-5-7, Luke 21-8-9 and here in Matt. 24-4-6, these events are given us. "Take heed that no man decieves you. For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall decieve many. And ye shall hear of wars and rumors of wars; see that ye be not troubled; for all (prophecy in scripture) must come to pass, but the end (the sunteleia) is not yet." In Luke 21-9 it is stated; "---for these things (given to this point in the Discourse) must first come to pass---." These prophetic words Jesus speaks of, at this point in the Discourse, "the end is not yet," was given in answer to their question in Matt. 24-3 concerning the "end" (the sunteleia of the age/world). As is seen in Mark 13-8, Luke 21-10-11 and here in Matt. 24-7-8, Jesus goes on to say; "For nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom; and there shall be famines and pestilences, and earthquakes in divers (various) places. All these (things to take place are) the beginning of sorrows."
After giving these general signs to the disciples concerning these coming things, he begins to tell his disciples the things that would soon happen to them in their lifetime. This is made clear in Luke 21-12, "But before all these (things)---." These events are given in Mark 13-9-13, Luke 21-12-19 and here in Matt. 24-9-13. Since Mark 13-9-11 give us more details, we go to that text. "But take heed to yourselves; for they shall deliver you up to councils; and in the synagogues ye shall be beaten; and ye shall be brought before rulers and kings for my sake, for a testimony against them. And the gospel must first be published (proclaimed) among all nations." We know from scripture that this began at Pentecost. "---men out of "every nation" under heaven (v. 5-Acts 2-1-13). This "proclamation" is seen in Mark 13-11, the following verse; "But when they shall lead (arrest) you, and deliver you up, take no thought before hand what ye shall speak, neither do ye premeditate; but whatsoever shall be given you in that hour, that speak ye; for it is not ye that speak, but "the Holy Ghost." We read in verse 13, "And ye shall be hated of all (men) for my name's sake; but he that shall endure (persevere to the end) the same shall be saved."
Here its necessary to go to Luke 21-20-24 in order to get a clearer understanding of the context seen in Matthew 24, Mark 13 and Luke 21. For Luke 21-20-24 give us the prophetic/historical fulfillment concerning the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. and its aftermath by the Roman Empire. "And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh." We see here, this refers not to the final end, the "sunteleia" time, but to Jerusalem's fall, its desolation. Here in Luke he does not state that it is "the abomination that causes desolation" for "Jerusalem", but rather it is the Roman armies that shall cause the desolation of Jerusalem. The abomination that causes desolation spoken of and seen in Mark and Matthew are not speaking of the Roman armies that Luke records, but rather the abomination seen in Daniel that we are told to refer to by Jesus in those verses of Mark and Matthew. And it is this abomination we are warned about that would come in the end time, and cause the desolation of the "world." Continuing with the prophecy given here in Luke of Jerusalem's fall; "Then let them which are in Judea flee to the mountains; and let them which are in the midst of it depart out; and let not them that are in the countries enter thereinto. For these be the days of "vengeance" (judgement-not fulfillment of all prophecy), that all things which are written may (in coming times) be fulfilled." This verse is clear, these are the days of "vengeance" in order that all things written may be fulfilled. "All things," all prophecy given in the Old and new Testament by the prophets and the apostles. "But woe unto them (in those days of vengeance) that are with child, and to them that give suck, in those days. For there shall be great distress in the land and wrath upon this people. And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations; and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the time of the Gentiles be fulfilled."
Luke 21-24 tells us that the Jews would be led away into all nations from the time of Jerusalem's fall, and Jerusalem would be trampled down "until the time of the Gentiles be fulfilled." And we know that time came about since 70 A.D. until at least when Israel was made a nation again in 1948. Luke 21-25-28 goes on to say that until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled; "There shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring; Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth; for the powers of heaven shall be shaken. And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory. And when these things (global and heavenly) begin to come to pass, then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption (not judgement) draweth nigh" (near).
Continuing in Luke 21-31-36, "So likewise ye, when ye see these things come to pass, know ye that the kingdom of God (the literal heavenly kingdom of God) is nigh (near) at hand." When these things come to pass, how near at hand shall the kingdom of God be? "Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass away, till all be fulfilled." Not the generation of the 1st century, but the generation that shall exist when the "times of the Gentiles be fulfilled," and as the general signs given occur in greater frequency. And note, it is at this time in the prophecy text that Jesus says "Heaven and earth "shall" pass away ( at the sunteleia of the age); but my words shall not pass away." Yet the preterists proclaim otherwise. They say that "heaven and earth" spiritually passed away in 70 A.D.; that being the Old Covenant age/world. But be it spiritual as they claim, Jesus states otherwise as does Revelation chapter 22. That heaven and earth shall pass away, not in 70 A.D. but when the general signs occur and after "the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled," bringing in the "sunteleia" of the age, and not before.
It is in those times of "that generation" that see these things being fulfilled that Luke 21-34-36 speaks to. "And take heed to yourselves, lest at any time your hearts be overcharged (weighed down) with surfeiting ( carousing), and drunkenness, and cares of this life, and (so) that day come upon you unawares. For as a snare (trap) shall it come on all them that dwell on the face of the whole earth" (tes ges). This verse is clear, it speaks of these things coming on the entire earth, and not just a specific land area of the Roman Empire. "Watch ye therefore, and pray always, that ye may be accounted worthy to escape all these things that shall come to pass, and to stand before the Son of man."
Now that we have gone through Luke 21-20-36, we turn to Mark 13-14-37 and Matt. 24-14-35, from where we had left off, and now continue from there. Since the wording in Matthew and Mark are much the same, we'll follow the text of Matthew. We ended in Mark 13-13 and Matt. 24-13, where it stated, "he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved." This is a parallel to Luke 21-17-19 and verse 24, "until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled." This time can be seen in Matt. 24-14; "and this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world (oikoumene-the inhabited world) for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come." Note the difference in wording here when compared to Mark 13-10, where there it indicated the coming of the Holy Spirit at Pentecost. There the "gospel" is mentioned, but the words "of the kingdom" are omitted. For the "gospel" must first be proclaimed among (not "into" but among) all nations. Acts chapter 2 tells us that this "gospel to be (first) published among the nations was fulfilled at Pentecost."
Mark and Matthew continue the prophetic context of that which would concern the going out of the gospel of the kingdom to the world before the end. What we have come to call the church age, and then after that shall the end come. When that "end" (telos) comes Mark and Matthew begin the prophetic texts from that point in time. (Mark 13-14-23; Matt. 24-14-28).
Matt. 24-15-16 (Mark 13-14), "When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand); Then let them which be in Judea flee into the mountains." This "abomination of desolation" seen in Dan. 11-36 to 12-13 that is being spoken of here cannot refer to Rome or its Roman armies that came against Jerusalem in 70 A.D. when reading the context in Daniel. Neither can it be Antiochus Epiphanes, for this prophecy was given nearly 200 years later, and was given as "a coming prophecy." The wording is clear, "When ye therefore shall (future tense) see---."These text verses of Mark and Matthew speak of a coming abomination of desolation at the end of the church age.
This is seen in 2 Thess. 2-1-4, "Now we beseech you, brethren, by (concerning) the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by (concerning) our gathering together unto him. That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. Let no man decieve you by any means; for (that day shall not come), except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshiped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, showing himself that he is God." This refers to "the abomination of desolation" that shall "stand in the holy place" seen here in Mark 13-14 and Matt. 24-15-16. This tribulation spoken of in these verses occur not only in Israel, but also in the world at large, as is seen in Mark 13-19-20 and Matt. 24-21-22. "Then let them which be in Judea flee into the mountains" (Matt. 24-16). "For then shall be great tribulation (global tribulation), such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be. And except those days should be shortened, there shall no flesh be saved; but for the elect's sake ( Christ's saints) those days shall be shortened" (Matt. 24-21-22).
In Mark 13-21-22 and here in Matt. 24-23-26, it indicates that at that time there shall be a great falling away due to the deciet of many false Christ's and false prophets. So decietful and cunning, that if it were possible, Jesus warns, "they shall decieve the very elect." Jesus also warns us that at that time his coming is near and will come quickly. "For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth (flashes) even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be" (Matt. 24-27).
(Mark 13-24-31) Matt. 24-29-35, "Immediately after the tribulation of those days (In Mark-"In those days after that tribulation"), shall the sun be darkened and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken. And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven; and then shall all the tribes of the earth (ge-the whole earth of tribes) mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. And he shall send his angels with a great sound of the trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect (saints) from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other" (see 1 Thess. 4-15-17). Matt. 24-33-35 (Mark 13-29-31), "So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it (or he) is near at the doors. Verily I say unto you, This generation (living when they shall see all these things) shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled. Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away."
Matt. 24-36-40, "But of that day and hour knoweth no (man), no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. But as the days of Noah (were), so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noah entered into the ark. And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. Then shall two be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left."
"Watch ye therefore, for ye know not when the master of the house cometh, at even (evening), or at midnight, or at the cock crowing, or in the morning; Lest coming suddenly he finds you sleeping. And what I say unto you I say unto all, Watch!" ( Mark 13-35-37).
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Lets turn now to discuss the time references or "time texts" the preterists point to in helping to support their 70 A.D. doctrine. They point to references such as "at hand, near, quickly, shortly and soon." In using these references, they point to Rev. 1-1, "---things which must shortly come to pass---." Rev. 1-3,"---for the time is at hand." Rev. 3-11,"---I am coming quickly;---." Rev. 22-6-7,"---things which must come to pass shortly.---behold, I am coming quickly;---." Rev. 22-10, "---for the time is at hand." Rev. 22-12, "Behold, I am coming quickly;---." Rev. 22-20, "---Yea, I am coming quickly." Preterists hold these time references, particularly in the book of Revelation as teaching it requires, necessitates and demands a 1st century fulfillment seen here and in the Olivet Discourse, among others. That being within the 1st century generation specifically in connection with the destruction of Jerusalem by the Roman armies in 70 A. D.
The "partial" preterists do not believe that "all" of the words of the prophecy of Revelation have been fulfilled in 70 A.D. Rather they believe that there is yet a future second coming of Christ (actually a 3rd coming according to their doctrine), based on a few New Testament passages "including Rev. 20-7-9." But the "time text references" they use to defend their doctrine; Rev. 1-1;1-3;22-6 and 22-10 "do not exclude" such passages as Rev. 20-7-9; but rather "encompass" all prophetic truth of the book of Revelation. Rev. 1-1, "---things which must shortly come to pass." Rev. 1-3, "---the words of the prophecy (in the book) and keep the things written in it ( in the whole book) for the time is at hand." Rev. 22-6, "---to show his servants the things (all things in this book) which must come to pass shortly." Rev. 22-10, "---seal not the words of the "prophecy of this book;" for the time is at hand."
Yet, the partial preterists acknowledge that Rev. 20-7-9 to chapter 22 have yet to be fulfilled. Therefore, whether they realize it or not, these "time text references" they use to defend their doctrine, "contradicts" their 70 A.D. doctrine they hold tightly too. For we can see here, this clearly creates a contradiction with the teachings of partial preterism. Since Rev. 22-6 refers to "the whole book" of Revelation, it would be impossible to take the Greek "tachos" (soon or shortly) as a reference to 70 A.D. and at the same time hold that Rev. 20-7-9 teaches a future coming of Christ. Also since Rev. 22-10 is at the end of the book and refers to the total prophetic message of Revelation, it is inconsistent to interpret "part" of the prophetic message as having already been fulfilled and the other part as still future.
There are other New Testament epistles that utilize the very same kind of "time text references" that speak like the verses seen in Revelation of an "imminent, soon or quick coming." Heb. 10-37, "For yet a "very little while" he that comes will come, and will "not delay." Peter 4-7, "But the end of all things is "drawn nigh (near);"---." Phil. 4-5, "---The Lord is near." Rom. 13-11-12, "---and "the day is near;"---." Rom. 16-20, "But the Lord of peace shall bruise Satan under your feet "shortly." James 5-8-9, "--for the coming of our Lord "is at hand."---behold the judge "standeth before the door." These are just some of others that could be given seen in the New Testament that speak of imminency of a soon, short or quick coming. The bottom line is that the "kind of imminency" which preterists assign to these time text references is self-defeating to their own doctrine, as can be seen in these texts given here.
Matt. 24-15-16 (Mark 13-14), "When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand); Then let them which be in Judea flee into the mountains." This "abomination of desolation" seen in Dan. 11-36 to 12-13 that is being spoken of here cannot refer to Rome or its Roman armies that came against Jerusalem in 70 A.D. when reading the context in Daniel. Neither can it be Antiochus Epiphanes, for this prophecy was given nearly 200 years later, and was given as "a coming prophecy." The wording is clear, "When ye therefore shall (future tense) see---."These text verses of Mark and Matthew speak of a coming abomination of desolation at the end of the church age.
This is seen in 2 Thess. 2-1-4, "Now we beseech you, brethren, by (concerning) the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by (concerning) our gathering together unto him. That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. Let no man decieve you by any means; for (that day shall not come), except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshiped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, showing himself that he is God." This refers to "the abomination of desolation" that shall "stand in the holy place" seen here in Mark 13-14 and Matt. 24-15-16. This tribulation spoken of in these verses occur not only in Israel, but also in the world at large, as is seen in Mark 13-19-20 and Matt. 24-21-22. "Then let them which be in Judea flee into the mountains" (Matt. 24-16). "For then shall be great tribulation (global tribulation), such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be. And except those days should be shortened, there shall no flesh be saved; but for the elect's sake ( Christ's saints) those days shall be shortened" (Matt. 24-21-22).
In Mark 13-21-22 and here in Matt. 24-23-26, it indicates that at that time there shall be a great falling away due to the deciet of many false Christ's and false prophets. So decietful and cunning, that if it were possible, Jesus warns, "they shall decieve the very elect." Jesus also warns us that at that time his coming is near and will come quickly. "For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth (flashes) even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be" (Matt. 24-27).
(Mark 13-24-31) Matt. 24-29-35, "Immediately after the tribulation of those days (In Mark-"In those days after that tribulation"), shall the sun be darkened and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken. And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven; and then shall all the tribes of the earth (ge-the whole earth of tribes) mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. And he shall send his angels with a great sound of the trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect (saints) from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other" (see 1 Thess. 4-15-17). Matt. 24-33-35 (Mark 13-29-31), "So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it (or he) is near at the doors. Verily I say unto you, This generation (living when they shall see all these things) shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled. Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away."
Matt. 24-36-40, "But of that day and hour knoweth no (man), no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. But as the days of Noah (were), so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noah entered into the ark. And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. Then shall two be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left."
"Watch ye therefore, for ye know not when the master of the house cometh, at even (evening), or at midnight, or at the cock crowing, or in the morning; Lest coming suddenly he finds you sleeping. And what I say unto you I say unto all, Watch!" ( Mark 13-35-37).
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Lets turn now to discuss the time references or "time texts" the preterists point to in helping to support their 70 A.D. doctrine. They point to references such as "at hand, near, quickly, shortly and soon." In using these references, they point to Rev. 1-1, "---things which must shortly come to pass---." Rev. 1-3,"---for the time is at hand." Rev. 3-11,"---I am coming quickly;---." Rev. 22-6-7,"---things which must come to pass shortly.---behold, I am coming quickly;---." Rev. 22-10, "---for the time is at hand." Rev. 22-12, "Behold, I am coming quickly;---." Rev. 22-20, "---Yea, I am coming quickly." Preterists hold these time references, particularly in the book of Revelation as teaching it requires, necessitates and demands a 1st century fulfillment seen here and in the Olivet Discourse, among others. That being within the 1st century generation specifically in connection with the destruction of Jerusalem by the Roman armies in 70 A. D.
The "partial" preterists do not believe that "all" of the words of the prophecy of Revelation have been fulfilled in 70 A.D. Rather they believe that there is yet a future second coming of Christ (actually a 3rd coming according to their doctrine), based on a few New Testament passages "including Rev. 20-7-9." But the "time text references" they use to defend their doctrine; Rev. 1-1;1-3;22-6 and 22-10 "do not exclude" such passages as Rev. 20-7-9; but rather "encompass" all prophetic truth of the book of Revelation. Rev. 1-1, "---things which must shortly come to pass." Rev. 1-3, "---the words of the prophecy (in the book) and keep the things written in it ( in the whole book) for the time is at hand." Rev. 22-6, "---to show his servants the things (all things in this book) which must come to pass shortly." Rev. 22-10, "---seal not the words of the "prophecy of this book;" for the time is at hand."
Yet, the partial preterists acknowledge that Rev. 20-7-9 to chapter 22 have yet to be fulfilled. Therefore, whether they realize it or not, these "time text references" they use to defend their doctrine, "contradicts" their 70 A.D. doctrine they hold tightly too. For we can see here, this clearly creates a contradiction with the teachings of partial preterism. Since Rev. 22-6 refers to "the whole book" of Revelation, it would be impossible to take the Greek "tachos" (soon or shortly) as a reference to 70 A.D. and at the same time hold that Rev. 20-7-9 teaches a future coming of Christ. Also since Rev. 22-10 is at the end of the book and refers to the total prophetic message of Revelation, it is inconsistent to interpret "part" of the prophetic message as having already been fulfilled and the other part as still future.
There are other New Testament epistles that utilize the very same kind of "time text references" that speak like the verses seen in Revelation of an "imminent, soon or quick coming." Heb. 10-37, "For yet a "very little while" he that comes will come, and will "not delay." Peter 4-7, "But the end of all things is "drawn nigh (near);"---." Phil. 4-5, "---The Lord is near." Rom. 13-11-12, "---and "the day is near;"---." Rom. 16-20, "But the Lord of peace shall bruise Satan under your feet "shortly." James 5-8-9, "--for the coming of our Lord "is at hand."---behold the judge "standeth before the door." These are just some of others that could be given seen in the New Testament that speak of imminency of a soon, short or quick coming. The bottom line is that the "kind of imminency" which preterists assign to these time text references is self-defeating to their own doctrine, as can be seen in these texts given here.
Revelation is not the only book to speak about future events as being "imminent" and "at hand". Paul admonishes godly living in light of the fact that the "night is almost gone, and "the day is near" (Rom. 13-12). Peter says, "The end of all things "is near," therefore, be of sound judgement and sober spirit for the purpose of prayer" (1 Peter 4-7). James also speaks in this way, "--you to be patient; strengthen your hearts, for the coming of the Lord "is near" ( James 5-8).
The Greek word "tachu" is to mean "swiftly" or "quickly" In Rev. 1-1 and 22-7, the Greek "en tachei" given there, literally reads (en) "in" (tachei) "speed." In swiftness, in speed,, or with swiftness with speed. "Tachos" (speed) is translated "quickly" in 22-7, and "tachos" (speed) is translated "shortly" in Rev. 1-1. In reading Rev. 1-1 literally, it is "---things (the prophetic events in the book) which must "in speed" (en tachei) come to pass;---." In Rev. 22-7 it literally reads, "Behold I come "in speed" ( or speedily); blessed (is) he that keepeth the sayings of the prophecy of this book" ( the entire book). So we see by the wording used here in Rev. 1-1 and 22-7, it is not refering to something happening "soon" as in the very near future as preterists take these words to mean. Rather the wording refers to "the rate of speed" in which these series of events given in Revelation will occur "when they come to pass."
We read in Romans 16-20, "But the God of peace shall bruise Satan under your feet "shortly"---." This Greek phrase "shortly" is "tachos" or "speed" that is used here and is also found in Rev. 1-1 and 22-6, "---the things that must "shortly" (in speed) come to pass---." Here Romans 16-20 serves as a further argument against preterist time text references, for Satan has yet to recieve his final crushing blow. Even though it has been nearly 2000 years since Paul wrote that this would "shortly" take place. But from the perspective of the believers both then and now, these events may be anticipated as to take place "shortly." So we have seen by the proper use of the wording and its context, the book of Revelation is NOT refering to something happening "soon" as preterists take these words to mean. Rather the wording refers to "the rate of speed" in which these series of events would occur when they came to pass.
"Surely I come quickly (with speed). Amen. Even so, come, Lord Jesus" (Rev. 22-20).
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In continuing, one time text they use is seen in Luke 21-22. "For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled." From this text they conclude that absolutely all prophecy, rather than just the prophecy about the vengeance on Jerusalem was fulfilled in 70 A.D. When doing a word study on "all things written", they would see they overlooked these verses. "---Behold, we go up to Jerusalem, and all things that are written by the prophets "concerning the Son of man shall be accomplished" (Luke 18-31). "--that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the Psalms, "concerning me" (Luke 24-44). In these two passages "all things written" refer to the things in the context, rather than to "all things absolutely" that are not in the context. Therefore, as in Luke chapter 18 and 24, so it is in Luke chapter 21.
Lets note a time text here that preterists usually overlook. "For I say unto you, ye shall not see me henceforth, till ye shall say, blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord" (Matt. 23-39). In the preceding verse (v.38), Jesus says, "Behold, your house is left unto you desolate." As we know, as a nation, they did not repent, and as a nation they ( their house) were left desolate in 70 A.D. But Jesus also said, "Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord." This thus implies that Jerusalem and the Jews, even though destroyed and dispersed in 70 A.D. would yet become a Jewish nation and city in the future. And Jerusalem as we know belongs to the Jews once again since becoming a nation in 1948.
Concerning time texts the preterists continually use to defend their doctrine, let's start here in Matt. 24-15. "When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand)." Here Jesus points us to Daniel, so we go to that text that speaks of this abomination. "And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week; and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate" (Dan. 9-27).
Most agree, as the preterists do, that "week" means a week of years, that being seven years. Note the two events that happen in the middle of that time. No. `1, "He shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease." No. 2, "--for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate." Futurists see both events happening in the middle of the week as seen here in the text. And to be fulfilled by the same personage ( whom they call anti-christ). Preterists however, "split" these events in time, saying that Christ is the one who caused the sacrifice to cease by his sacrifice on the Cross in the middle of the week. Then later in time ( this brings in a time gap), came the abomination of desolation, fulfilled by Nero ( representing Rome) or somebody like that in 70 A.D. In either case they see and acknowledge "a gap" between the two events. So according to some preterists, the 2nd event falls "outside" the week ( the 7 years), instead of in the "middle" of the week, as the text reads. Other preterists keep the 2nd event in the middle of the week by "moving" the week to around 70 A.D. But acknowledging still "a gap" between the 69th and 70th week as futurists proclaim. But for preterists to do this, that would leave the 1st event fulfillment "outside" the week. That being Christ's crucifixion causing the sacrifice to cease. In each case, one event or the other falls "outside" the week the preterist doctrine holds too, and with "a gap" between the two events. A gap they use to defend their doctrine, but a gap "they deny" the futurist to defend their doctrine. Still other preterists stretch the 70th week (the 7 years) to nearly "40 years" in order to include both events "within" the week, even though seperated in time by nearly 40 years.
There are four places that mention the taking away of the daily. I say "daily" because the word "sacrifice" is not given in the original texts of Daniel, except in Dan. 9-27. It was the translators who added the word "sacrifice" in those verses other than in Dan. 9-27. "How long shall be the vision concerning the daily (added-sacrifice), and the transgression of desolation, to give both the sanctuary and the host to be trodden underfoot?" (Dan. 8-13). "And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week; and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate" ( Dan. 9-27). "And arms shall stand on his part, and they shall pollute the sanctuary of strength, and shall take away the daily (added-sacrifice), and they shall place the abomination that maketh desolate" (Dan 11-31). "And from the time that the daily (added-sacrifice) shall be taken away and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be a thousand two hundred and ninety days" (Dan. 12-11).
From these passages we see that the taking away of the daily (--) is done by the "bad guy", not by Christ. Also the two events, the taking away of the daily and the abomination of desolation happen "together" at the same time, with "no gap" in between the two. Note particularly Dan. 12-11; the two events happen together at the same time, and by the same "person." (beast). And it is the "bad guy" not Christ who takes away the daily and sets up the abomination with no gap between the two events. We see the passages do not allow a gap between the two events of the 70th week. The week is a solid unit. Therefore, if there's a gap, the gap more naturally falls "before" the 70th week begins, that being after the 69th week.
We see that Jesus in his Discourse put the events of the 70th week future to his time. So why do preterists hang on to the interpretation that it was not the "bad guy" who takes away the daily and sets up an abomination, but rather it was Christ? Where their interpretation would then require a gap of nearly 40 years "between" the two events? Where the passages make clear the two events occur at the same time, and allow for no gaps? The text in Daniel says, "And after threescore and two weeks ( after the 69th week) shall Mesiah be cut off." It doesn't say "in the middle of the 70th week" as the preterist time texts give us. The text tells of the destruction of the "city and sanctuary before" it mentions the events of the 70th week. Yet the time line of preterists "reverses" this order given us in Daniel.
The Greek word "tachu" is to mean "swiftly" or "quickly" In Rev. 1-1 and 22-7, the Greek "en tachei" given there, literally reads (en) "in" (tachei) "speed." In swiftness, in speed,, or with swiftness with speed. "Tachos" (speed) is translated "quickly" in 22-7, and "tachos" (speed) is translated "shortly" in Rev. 1-1. In reading Rev. 1-1 literally, it is "---things (the prophetic events in the book) which must "in speed" (en tachei) come to pass;---." In Rev. 22-7 it literally reads, "Behold I come "in speed" ( or speedily); blessed (is) he that keepeth the sayings of the prophecy of this book" ( the entire book). So we see by the wording used here in Rev. 1-1 and 22-7, it is not refering to something happening "soon" as in the very near future as preterists take these words to mean. Rather the wording refers to "the rate of speed" in which these series of events given in Revelation will occur "when they come to pass."
We read in Romans 16-20, "But the God of peace shall bruise Satan under your feet "shortly"---." This Greek phrase "shortly" is "tachos" or "speed" that is used here and is also found in Rev. 1-1 and 22-6, "---the things that must "shortly" (in speed) come to pass---." Here Romans 16-20 serves as a further argument against preterist time text references, for Satan has yet to recieve his final crushing blow. Even though it has been nearly 2000 years since Paul wrote that this would "shortly" take place. But from the perspective of the believers both then and now, these events may be anticipated as to take place "shortly." So we have seen by the proper use of the wording and its context, the book of Revelation is NOT refering to something happening "soon" as preterists take these words to mean. Rather the wording refers to "the rate of speed" in which these series of events would occur when they came to pass.
"Surely I come quickly (with speed). Amen. Even so, come, Lord Jesus" (Rev. 22-20).
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In continuing, one time text they use is seen in Luke 21-22. "For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled." From this text they conclude that absolutely all prophecy, rather than just the prophecy about the vengeance on Jerusalem was fulfilled in 70 A.D. When doing a word study on "all things written", they would see they overlooked these verses. "---Behold, we go up to Jerusalem, and all things that are written by the prophets "concerning the Son of man shall be accomplished" (Luke 18-31). "--that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the Psalms, "concerning me" (Luke 24-44). In these two passages "all things written" refer to the things in the context, rather than to "all things absolutely" that are not in the context. Therefore, as in Luke chapter 18 and 24, so it is in Luke chapter 21.
Lets note a time text here that preterists usually overlook. "For I say unto you, ye shall not see me henceforth, till ye shall say, blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord" (Matt. 23-39). In the preceding verse (v.38), Jesus says, "Behold, your house is left unto you desolate." As we know, as a nation, they did not repent, and as a nation they ( their house) were left desolate in 70 A.D. But Jesus also said, "Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord." This thus implies that Jerusalem and the Jews, even though destroyed and dispersed in 70 A.D. would yet become a Jewish nation and city in the future. And Jerusalem as we know belongs to the Jews once again since becoming a nation in 1948.
Concerning time texts the preterists continually use to defend their doctrine, let's start here in Matt. 24-15. "When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand)." Here Jesus points us to Daniel, so we go to that text that speaks of this abomination. "And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week; and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate" (Dan. 9-27).
Most agree, as the preterists do, that "week" means a week of years, that being seven years. Note the two events that happen in the middle of that time. No. `1, "He shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease." No. 2, "--for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate." Futurists see both events happening in the middle of the week as seen here in the text. And to be fulfilled by the same personage ( whom they call anti-christ). Preterists however, "split" these events in time, saying that Christ is the one who caused the sacrifice to cease by his sacrifice on the Cross in the middle of the week. Then later in time ( this brings in a time gap), came the abomination of desolation, fulfilled by Nero ( representing Rome) or somebody like that in 70 A.D. In either case they see and acknowledge "a gap" between the two events. So according to some preterists, the 2nd event falls "outside" the week ( the 7 years), instead of in the "middle" of the week, as the text reads. Other preterists keep the 2nd event in the middle of the week by "moving" the week to around 70 A.D. But acknowledging still "a gap" between the 69th and 70th week as futurists proclaim. But for preterists to do this, that would leave the 1st event fulfillment "outside" the week. That being Christ's crucifixion causing the sacrifice to cease. In each case, one event or the other falls "outside" the week the preterist doctrine holds too, and with "a gap" between the two events. A gap they use to defend their doctrine, but a gap "they deny" the futurist to defend their doctrine. Still other preterists stretch the 70th week (the 7 years) to nearly "40 years" in order to include both events "within" the week, even though seperated in time by nearly 40 years.
There are four places that mention the taking away of the daily. I say "daily" because the word "sacrifice" is not given in the original texts of Daniel, except in Dan. 9-27. It was the translators who added the word "sacrifice" in those verses other than in Dan. 9-27. "How long shall be the vision concerning the daily (added-sacrifice), and the transgression of desolation, to give both the sanctuary and the host to be trodden underfoot?" (Dan. 8-13). "And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week; and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate" ( Dan. 9-27). "And arms shall stand on his part, and they shall pollute the sanctuary of strength, and shall take away the daily (added-sacrifice), and they shall place the abomination that maketh desolate" (Dan 11-31). "And from the time that the daily (added-sacrifice) shall be taken away and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be a thousand two hundred and ninety days" (Dan. 12-11).
From these passages we see that the taking away of the daily (--) is done by the "bad guy", not by Christ. Also the two events, the taking away of the daily and the abomination of desolation happen "together" at the same time, with "no gap" in between the two. Note particularly Dan. 12-11; the two events happen together at the same time, and by the same "person." (beast). And it is the "bad guy" not Christ who takes away the daily and sets up the abomination with no gap between the two events. We see the passages do not allow a gap between the two events of the 70th week. The week is a solid unit. Therefore, if there's a gap, the gap more naturally falls "before" the 70th week begins, that being after the 69th week.
We see that Jesus in his Discourse put the events of the 70th week future to his time. So why do preterists hang on to the interpretation that it was not the "bad guy" who takes away the daily and sets up an abomination, but rather it was Christ? Where their interpretation would then require a gap of nearly 40 years "between" the two events? Where the passages make clear the two events occur at the same time, and allow for no gaps? The text in Daniel says, "And after threescore and two weeks ( after the 69th week) shall Mesiah be cut off." It doesn't say "in the middle of the 70th week" as the preterist time texts give us. The text tells of the destruction of the "city and sanctuary before" it mentions the events of the 70th week. Yet the time line of preterists "reverses" this order given us in Daniel.
In the case of the desolation in Matthew and Luke, we'll notice one big difference. "When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, ( whoso readeth, let him understand), Then let them which be in Judea flee into the mountains;---." (Matt. 24-15-16). "And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh. Then let them which are in Judea flee to the mountains---." ( Luke 21-20-21). What is the signal to flee seen in these verses? We see they provide two answers, but two different answers. The different answers give evidence of different events. Matthew says to flee when you see something "inside" or "standing in the holy place." Luke says when you see something "outside" the city of Jerusalem. So which is it? They're opposite. In Matthew's context, the "holy place" refers to Daniel, and is temple related rather than city related. The Daniel passages about the abomination of desolation mention "sanctuary," the "daily" and "oblation." Although Dan. 9-26 mentions the "desolation" of the city and the sanctuary, the "abomination" passages are "temple related" ( Dan. 8-13;9-27;11-31;12-11). So in context, "holy place" means the holy place in the temple where God resides. In the New Covenant context, we are the temple, the "holy place" where God resides by His Holy Spirit he indwells us with. We are the temple of God--the house of Israel--the Israel of God.
Besides Daniel to which Matthew refers us, see also Acts 6-13, Hebrews chapter 9, and 2 Thess. 2-4. Mark 13-14 says the abomination of desolation will stand where it "ought not." Now the contrast is not just outside the city versus inside the city. But now, more than just inside the city, its also inside a temple. Inside the temple where the holy place resides. So if outside the city and inside the city are opposite, then outside the city and inside the holy place are "totally" opposite. On this basis, it can be concluded that Matthew and Luke record different events, because the signal to flee is opposite. From this follows other observations consistent with that conclusion. First, the "timing" of fleeing is different. In Matthew the time to flee comes "after" the abomination of desolation is set up. In Luke the time to flee comes "before" the desolation. Second, the description of the desolation is different. Matthew calls it the "abomination" of desolation spoken of by Daniel. In Luke its just "desolation" of what is to come upon the Jewish nation and Jerusalem. And Luke gives no reference to Daniel concerning this "desolation." Third, the description of the distress is different. Luke calls it "great distress." Matthew calls it "great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be." Fourth, the scope of people in distress is different. Luke says there shall be "wrath upon this people" and "Jerusalem shall be trodden down." But Matthew says, "And except those days shall be shortened, there shall no flesh be saved." Preterists take "no flesh" as not literally being global, but limited in scope to Jerusalem or Israel. After Luke finishes talking about the distress, and starts talking about the Lord's 2nd coming, we see his lanquage, like Matthew's, become worldwide in scope, saying "it shall come on all them that dwell on the face of the whole earth."
Besides Daniel to which Matthew refers us, see also Acts 6-13, Hebrews chapter 9, and 2 Thess. 2-4. Mark 13-14 says the abomination of desolation will stand where it "ought not." Now the contrast is not just outside the city versus inside the city. But now, more than just inside the city, its also inside a temple. Inside the temple where the holy place resides. So if outside the city and inside the city are opposite, then outside the city and inside the holy place are "totally" opposite. On this basis, it can be concluded that Matthew and Luke record different events, because the signal to flee is opposite. From this follows other observations consistent with that conclusion. First, the "timing" of fleeing is different. In Matthew the time to flee comes "after" the abomination of desolation is set up. In Luke the time to flee comes "before" the desolation. Second, the description of the desolation is different. Matthew calls it the "abomination" of desolation spoken of by Daniel. In Luke its just "desolation" of what is to come upon the Jewish nation and Jerusalem. And Luke gives no reference to Daniel concerning this "desolation." Third, the description of the distress is different. Luke calls it "great distress." Matthew calls it "great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be." Fourth, the scope of people in distress is different. Luke says there shall be "wrath upon this people" and "Jerusalem shall be trodden down." But Matthew says, "And except those days shall be shortened, there shall no flesh be saved." Preterists take "no flesh" as not literally being global, but limited in scope to Jerusalem or Israel. After Luke finishes talking about the distress, and starts talking about the Lord's 2nd coming, we see his lanquage, like Matthew's, become worldwide in scope, saying "it shall come on all them that dwell on the face of the whole earth."
Number 5, the "days" recieve a different emphasis of meaning. Matthew says, "And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved." But instead of shortening and saving, Luke says, "For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled." Sixth, the chronology of the desolation is different. Matthew has the abomination "before" the great tribulation. Although Luke warns to flee before the "distress" (as he records it), the actual "desolation" occurs at the "end" of the distress of that time. Seven, the description of the false christs is different. Luke mentions false christs once "before" the coming distress. Matthew mentions false christs twice, the second time "after the tribulation begins." That's consistent with the futurist view of what will happen in the tribulation. And if Luke is not talking about the future tribulation, but a past distress, then its consistent that he omits these events.
Number 8, the people go in opposite directions. Luke says they "shall be led away captives into all nations." Matthew says, "they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other." One event is the scattering, the other event is the gathering. This pattern is consistent with the view that Luke and Matthew speak of different times. Luke speaks of the time of distress leading up to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. Matthew speaks of the great tribulation leading up to the return of Christ.
Number 9, in Matthew he writes, "Immediately after the tribulation of those days---." The words "immediately after" are missing from Luke. And Luke does not even use the words as Mark does, "after that tribulation." Luke simply says, "And there shall be signs in the sun---." without specifying when, as Matthew and Mark do. If Luke does not explicitely place the time of distress adjacent to the time of the end, then where does he place it? He places it at the beginning of the time of the Gentiles. "And Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the time of the Gentiles be fulfilled." When is the time of the Gentiles fulfilled? Some preterists say it was fulfilled at the fall of the city in 70 A.D., and they say it started at the surrounding of the city. But in Luke the surrounding of the city means its desolation is "near" not here. The trodding of the city happens last in Luke's texts, not first. The year 70 A.D. only "started" the trodding down, not ended it. Therefore Luke leaves us with an extended time of Gentile domination over Jerusalem, which through hindsight has lasted at least until 1967 when Israel regained Jerusalem. This then puts the end of the time of the Gentiles at the end of the age (the sunteleia) and the return of Christ.
Luke 21-28 says, "And when these things begin to come to pass, then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption draweth nigh." In Bibical context redemption is near when the Kingdom of God is nigh (Luke 21-31). Other passages reveal two aspects of redemption, one at the first coming of Christ, and the other at the second coming of Christ. But how does the destruction of Jerusalem relate to "redemption" as preterists try to claim? It doesn't, but Jesus' words and promises do; "So likewise ye, when ye see these things come to pass, know ye that the Kingdom of God is nigh at hand. Verily I say unto you, THIS GENERATION shall not pass away, till all be fulfilled. Heaven and earth shall pass away; but my words shall not pass away" (Luke 21-31-33; see also Matt. 24-33-35 and Mark 13-29-31).
"Watch ye therefore, and pray always, that ye may be accounted worthy to escape all these things that shall come to pass, and to stand before the Son of man" (Luke 21-36).
Note; It is a fact that without exception, every time Jesus is said to "come" with "clouds" in glory and power in the gospels and people "see" him, the Greek word "parousia" (to mean presence) is "not" used. The Greek word used is "erchomenon" in Matt. 24-30; Mark 13-26 and Luke 21-27. And this Greek word cannot be interpreted to mean some kind of invisible "presence" as preterists make that "coming" (parousia) out to be. For the word used is "erchomenon," and is to mean a "literal presence," or coming.
The Greek word "coming" (parousia-presence) is given in Matt. 24-3,27,37,39. Where the Greek word "coming" (erchomai-literal presence) is given in Matt. 24-30,42,43,44. Both words given in these verses are seen as being interchangable. That is they speak of not only his "coming presence", but at its fulfillment, his "literal presence." This certainly did not happen in 70 A.D. as the preterists, and partial preterists claim. So we see that these verses speak of not a 70 A.D. fulfillment, but a future fulfillment concerning those events that lead to the second coming of Christ.
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Number 8, the people go in opposite directions. Luke says they "shall be led away captives into all nations." Matthew says, "they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other." One event is the scattering, the other event is the gathering. This pattern is consistent with the view that Luke and Matthew speak of different times. Luke speaks of the time of distress leading up to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. Matthew speaks of the great tribulation leading up to the return of Christ.
Number 9, in Matthew he writes, "Immediately after the tribulation of those days---." The words "immediately after" are missing from Luke. And Luke does not even use the words as Mark does, "after that tribulation." Luke simply says, "And there shall be signs in the sun---." without specifying when, as Matthew and Mark do. If Luke does not explicitely place the time of distress adjacent to the time of the end, then where does he place it? He places it at the beginning of the time of the Gentiles. "And Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the time of the Gentiles be fulfilled." When is the time of the Gentiles fulfilled? Some preterists say it was fulfilled at the fall of the city in 70 A.D., and they say it started at the surrounding of the city. But in Luke the surrounding of the city means its desolation is "near" not here. The trodding of the city happens last in Luke's texts, not first. The year 70 A.D. only "started" the trodding down, not ended it. Therefore Luke leaves us with an extended time of Gentile domination over Jerusalem, which through hindsight has lasted at least until 1967 when Israel regained Jerusalem. This then puts the end of the time of the Gentiles at the end of the age (the sunteleia) and the return of Christ.
Luke 21-28 says, "And when these things begin to come to pass, then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption draweth nigh." In Bibical context redemption is near when the Kingdom of God is nigh (Luke 21-31). Other passages reveal two aspects of redemption, one at the first coming of Christ, and the other at the second coming of Christ. But how does the destruction of Jerusalem relate to "redemption" as preterists try to claim? It doesn't, but Jesus' words and promises do; "So likewise ye, when ye see these things come to pass, know ye that the Kingdom of God is nigh at hand. Verily I say unto you, THIS GENERATION shall not pass away, till all be fulfilled. Heaven and earth shall pass away; but my words shall not pass away" (Luke 21-31-33; see also Matt. 24-33-35 and Mark 13-29-31).
"Watch ye therefore, and pray always, that ye may be accounted worthy to escape all these things that shall come to pass, and to stand before the Son of man" (Luke 21-36).
Note; It is a fact that without exception, every time Jesus is said to "come" with "clouds" in glory and power in the gospels and people "see" him, the Greek word "parousia" (to mean presence) is "not" used. The Greek word used is "erchomenon" in Matt. 24-30; Mark 13-26 and Luke 21-27. And this Greek word cannot be interpreted to mean some kind of invisible "presence" as preterists make that "coming" (parousia) out to be. For the word used is "erchomenon," and is to mean a "literal presence," or coming.
The Greek word "coming" (parousia-presence) is given in Matt. 24-3,27,37,39. Where the Greek word "coming" (erchomai-literal presence) is given in Matt. 24-30,42,43,44. Both words given in these verses are seen as being interchangable. That is they speak of not only his "coming presence", but at its fulfillment, his "literal presence." This certainly did not happen in 70 A.D. as the preterists, and partial preterists claim. So we see that these verses speak of not a 70 A.D. fulfillment, but a future fulfillment concerning those events that lead to the second coming of Christ.
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